set up for dealing with employees expenses

[Derek Atkins]

Hi,

tereque <tereque at gmail.com> writes:

> thanks, several questions though
>
> On 13/07/2012 09:15, Derek Atkins wrote:
>> Hi,
>>
>> On Thu, July 12, 2012 9:05 pm, tereque wrote:
>>> hi everybody,
>>>
>>> I am managing accounting for our small company and need to find a good  ...
>>> ...
>>> ...I would prefer that in the end the (liabitlty) account of the employes
>>> cash (that has been used temporarily) is being left out
>>
>> This is exactly what the Employee Expense Vouchers are for.  Business ->
>> Employee -> New Voucher
>>
>> Just set up a single A/P account (which you can share between Employee
>> vouchers and Vendor Bills).  When you post a Voucher to A/P that will show
>> the Expenses paid to the Employee (using either Cash, which would be
>> directly reimbursable via A/P, or via a Company Card, which would go to
>> that liability instead of the A/P liability).  Then when you process
>> payment it will show the payoff of the A/P liability from your asset
>> (Bank/Cash) account.
>
> have figured out that after a little back and forth. Actually seems
> you need a 'liability account' you can connect the single transaction
> of each Voucher with first. Once 'posted' the Voucher it is shown to
> the A/P account AND the liability account.

No, you don't.  The A/P acocunt *is* the liability account.  When you
create the expense voucher you create a transaction from A/P (your
liability) to the various expense accounts.  I suspect your issue here
is that you're not supplying the correct expense accounts when you input
the Voucher.

> Problem not yet solved is: How do I get this payment in the normal
> cycle after reimbursement?

What do you mean "normal cycle"?

> If I 'pay' the invoice (using the A/P as a target) I even out my
> employees liability account (which is good). But I actually need these
> $100,- to show as a withdrawal from one of my assets, and going to one
> of my expenses accounts. I guess in the end it doesn't matter that
> this money was first paid by myself and then later was reimbursed in
> cash to me. I need the payment coming from an asset > going to an
> expenses account.

Does it need to be a DIRECT transaction from Cash -> Expense?  Having
two transactions (AP -> Expense, Cash -> AP) is not sufficient for you?
Why is the two-txn model not sufficient?

> Also I would need all single items of such a voucher to be routed
> individually. Possible I have one payment for Paper, one for dining
> and something else which need to be shown in the correct expenses
> account.

I'm not sure I understand what you mean here.

> It also seems not to help if you only had one items per voucher (which
> also not seem to be purpose really) because when 'paying' the invoice
> you get the name of the employee in the description and would loose
> the real description ('Paper' in this example)

This is true.  The only way to get the voucher line-item descriptions
into the Splits is to make sure you do not "accumulate splits".  At that
point the line-item descs will get put into the Split Memo.  You still
need to Split-expand the transaction in the register to see what's being
paid.  On the other hand, your accounts should give you sufficient
differentiation.  If not, then you need more accounts.

> many thanks

You're weclome

> Please remember to CC this list on all your replies.
> You can do this by using Reply-To-List or Reply-All.

-derek

PS: Sending just to the list is okay -- no need to send to me as well.
As the list says above, the important part is sending back to the list.
:)

-- 
       Derek Atkins, SB '93 MIT EE, SM '95 MIT Media Laboratory
       Member, MIT Student Information Processing Board  (SIPB)
       URL: http://web.mit.edu/warlord/    PP-ASEL-IA     N1NWH
       warlord at MIT.EDU                        PGP key available