Advanced Portfolio Report

Alun Champion alun at achampion.net
Wed Feb 12 15:05:45 EST 2014


>> Maybe I've missed something.
>> Why do we need to distinguish between them. The dividend income
>> reduces the cost basis, and the subsequent purchase is treated the
>> same as any normal purchase of the stocks (increases number of shares
>> and increase cost basis).
>> Is there really anything special about the second purchase other that
>> it is done automatically and limited to the amount you receive as a
>> dividend.
>
> They need to be distinguished because dividend reinvestment should
> increase the cost basis but should not be included in the money in
> column. This is not money I have put in but has come from an income
> distribution.

Isn't this reflected in the income column. Either it is income that
you've elected to reinvest (cost basis and money in) or it isn't
income but a distribution of shares (presumably this doesn't affect
cost basis or money in).

>> The problem with a single transaction is the attribution is wrong. The
>> expenses do not reduce the income but increase the cost basis for the
>> purchase. Income should remains 374.92, cost basis for the purchase of
>> 374.22 (366.95 + expenses)
>> Do the expenses get double counted both as an increase in the cost
>> basis + a decrease in the income or only the latter? If only the
>> latter then the totals still remain correct, but the attribution is
>> wrong.
>
> You mean 372.44?. The current report doesn't include expenses in the
> basis column but Mike has that covered with a new setting. The income
> reflected in the income column is the actual income received and should
> not be reduced by the expenses or have I misunderstood your point?

Yes 372.44. I agree that income should not be affected by the expenses
only the cost basis.


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